Obstetrics And Pediatric Anatomy NMC Licensing Trial ~ password: nursing123

 

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Nursing Quiz (10 Questions)

1. A baby born 8 hours ago was examined and had yellowish discoloration of his eyes. The conclusion is:

Pathological jaundice
Physiological jaundice
Blood incompatibility

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jaundice within 8 hours of life is most likely pathological.

2. A diabetic mother delivered a large-for-date baby. The reason is:

Deposition of fats
Polycythaemia
Hyperinsulinism

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Excess glucose leads to foetal hyperinsulinism, causing excessive growth.

3. A 22-year-old food vendor presents with purulent vaginal discharge after intercourse. Gonorrhoea test is positive. The best treatment is:

Ceftriaxone and Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Doxycycline

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dual therapy with ceftriaxone + azithromycin treats gonorrhoea and possible chlamydia coinfection.

4. A midwifery student asks what causes the Graafian follicle to rupture and ovulation to occur:

Surge in oestrogen and progesterone
Oestrogen alone
Relaxin

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: LH surge triggered by oestrogen rise causes follicle rupture and ovulation.

5. A 2-week-old exclusively breastfed baby needs supplementation with:

Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Iron

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Breast milk is low in Vitamin D; supplementation prevents rickets.

6. A baby has not passed stool since birth. The first appropriate action is:

Examine abdomen for distension
Pass flatus tube
Insert index finger into anus

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Initial non-invasive assessment is abdominal examination.

7. The anterior fontanelle normally closes at:

12–18 months
12–18 weeks
20–24 weeks

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The anterior fontanelle usually closes between 12–18 months.

8. A nulliparous woman delivers a 1.5 kg baby. She has epilepsy treated with phenytoin. The most likely cause is:

Phenytoin
Cigarette smoke
Alcohol

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin is linked to foetal growth restriction and low birth weight.

9. A 36-year-old non-lactating woman has 2 months of bloody nipple discharge with no palpable mass. The best management is:

Observation alone
Diagnostic mammography with ultrasound
Serum prolactin and TRH levels

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Imaging is required to rule out cancer when nipple discharge is bloody.

10. A 38-year-old woman undergoes uterine fibroid embolization. The most common complication is:

Vaginal passage of a myoma
Infection
Post-embolization syndrome

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Post-embolization syndrome (pain, fever, nausea) is most common.